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AP Environmental Science

College Board · 9 units · exam-weighted · high school

AP Environmental Science: every unit with its share of the exam, as College Board publishes it, with practice questions per unit and a countdown to the exam.

Set up AP Environmental Science → One set per unit, 9 of them pre-written and answer-checked. Free, no account needed.

Units and exam weighting

Unit 1: The Living World: Ecosystems 6–8% of the exam

Ecosystem structure, biomes, carbon, nitrogen, phosphorus and water cycles, primary productivity, trophic levels, energy flow and food webs.

3 of 14 questions in this unit, with the worked answer

An ecosystem has GPP of 6,200 kcal/m²/yr and plant respiration of 2,700 kcal/m²/yr. What is the NPP?

Answer. 3,500 kcal/m²/yr

NPP = GPP − R = 6,200 − 2,700 = 3,500 kcal/m²/yr. This is the energy stored as new biomass and available to consumers and decomposers.

Which biome is characterized by low annual precipitation (often under 25 cm), extreme daily temperature fluctuations, and vegetation adapted to conserve water such as cacti and shrubs?

Answer. Desert

Deserts are defined primarily by very low precipitation regardless of whether they are hot or cold. Plants show adaptations like CAM photosynthesis and thick cuticles to minimize water loss.

Producers in a lake generate 10,000 kcal/m²/yr of NPP. Using the 10% rule, how much energy is available to tertiary consumers (three trophic transfers above producers)?

Answer. 10 kcal/m²/yr

10,000 × 0.10 = 1,000 kcal (primary consumers); 1,000 × 0.10 = 100 kcal (secondary consumers); 100 × 0.10 = 10 kcal (tertiary consumers). Each transfer loses about 90% of the energy as heat and unused matter.

All 14 questions for Unit 1, with the working →

What people get wrong

  1. Confusing GPP and NPP — students forget to subtract respiration and treat GPP as the energy available to consumers. Always compute NPP = GPP − R before doing any consumer-level energy calculations.
  2. Treating the 10% rule as an exact law rather than an average — actual transfer efficiency varies by ecosystem and species. State it as 'approximately 10%' or 'on average' rather than an exact universal constant.
  3. Mixing up nitrogen fixation, nitrification, and denitrification — students use these terms interchangeably. Keep them straight: fixation converts N2 to NH3/NH4+; nitrification converts NH4+ to NO2−/NO3−; denitrification converts NO3− back to N2 gas.
  4. Assuming the phosphorus cycle has a large atmospheric gas phase like carbon and nitrogen — it does not. Remember phosphorus moves mainly through rock weathering, soil, and water, which is exactly why it's so often the limiting nutrient in freshwater systems.

Unit 2: The Living World: Biodiversity 6–8% of the exam

Biodiversity, ecosystem services, island biogeography, ecological tolerance, natural disruptions, adaptation, succession.

3 of 13 questions in this unit, with the worked answer

Which measure of biodiversity accounts for both the number of species present and how evenly individuals are distributed among those species?

Answer. A species diversity index

Species richness counts only the number of species, and evenness measures relative abundance alone; a diversity index (like the Shannon index) combines both into a single value, which is why it is considered the more complete biodiversity measure.

According to island biogeography theory, which island would be predicted to reach equilibrium with the highest species richness?

Answer. A large island close to the mainland

Large islands have lower extinction rates because they support bigger populations and more habitat variety; islands close to the mainland have higher immigration rates because colonizers arrive more easily. Combining both effects maximizes equilibrium richness.

Explain why the immigration rate of new species onto an island decreases as the island approaches its equilibrium number of species.

Answer. As more species already occupy the island, fewer species from the mainland pool remain that have not yet colonized, and existing species increase competition for available niches, making successful new establishment less likely.

Immigration rate is highest when an island is nearly empty because almost any arriving species can find an open niche; as species accumulate, the pool of non-resident species shrinks and competitive exclusion becomes more likely, driving immigration toward zero at equilibrium.

All 13 questions for Unit 2, with the working →

What people get wrong

  1. Assuming extinction rate rises with island area — it's the opposite: larger islands support larger, more resilient populations and more habitat diversity, so extinction rate decreases as area increases. Always tie island size to extinction, and distance to immigration.
  2. Misclassifying ecosystem services, especially calling pollination or water purification 'provisioning' — these are regulating services because they maintain a process rather than supply a direct product. Ask 'does this give me a good, or does it maintain a condition?' before classifying.
  3. Confusing primary and secondary succession by focusing on the disturbance type instead of soil presence. A fire on farmland is secondary succession because soil remains; a lava flow is primary succession because no soil exists. Check for soil, not just 'was there a disaster.'
  4. Treating the zone of physiological stress as if organisms cannot survive there at all. Organisms can survive in this zone but show reduced growth or reproduction; only outside the tolerance limits (zone of intolerance) do they die. Read range-of-tolerance graphs by labeling three zones, not two.

Unit 3: Populations 10–15% of the exam

Generalist and specialist species, K- and r-selected species, survivorship curves, carrying capacity, population growth, age structure, human population dynamics.

3 of 13 questions in this unit, with the worked answer

A species that can tolerate a wide range of environmental conditions and eat many different foods is best described as a:

Answer. Generalist species

Generalist species have a broad niche and flexible resource use, which lets them survive habitat disturbance better than specialists. Raccoons and coyotes are classic examples.

Explain why specialist species are more vulnerable to extinction than generalist species when their habitat is disturbed.

Answer. Specialists depend on a narrow set of resources or conditions, so if that specific food source or habitat is altered or destroyed, they have no alternative to fall back on.

Generalists can shift to other food sources or habitats when conditions change, but specialists like the koala (which relies almost exclusively on eucalyptus) cannot adapt quickly, making them prone to population decline or extinction.

A population of mice reproduces early, produces large litters, provides minimal parental care, and experiences high offspring mortality. Is this population r-selected or K-selected? Justify your answer.

Answer. r-selected

The combination of early reproduction, large litter size, low parental investment, and high offspring mortality matches the r-selected strategy, which compensates for high individual death rates by producing many offspring quickly.

All 13 questions for Unit 3, with the working →

What people get wrong

  1. Memorizing r-selected and K-selected trait lists without understanding why — instead, reason from the strategy: r-selected species gamble on quantity (many offspring, little care) because their environment is unstable, while K-selected species invest in quality (few offspring, high care) because their environment is stable near carrying capacity.
  2. Treating carrying capacity as a fixed number — instead, remember K can rise or fall with resource availability, climate, disease, or human impact, and populations can temporarily overshoot K before crashing.
  3. Mixing up Type I and Type III survivorship curves — instead, anchor each to a concrete example: Type I (humans, elephants) loses individuals mostly in old age; Type III (fish, insects) loses most offspring early, with few reaching adulthood.
  4. Assuming logistic growth stops abruptly at K — instead, recognize that dN/dt gradually approaches zero as N approaches K because of the (K−N)/K term, not because growth halts instantly.

Unit 4: Earth Systems and Resources 10–15% of the exam

Plate tectonics, soil formation and composition, the atmosphere, global wind patterns, watersheds, solar radiation and seasons, El Niño and La Niña.

3 of 13 questions in this unit, with the worked answer

Which type of plate boundary is responsible for the formation of new oceanic crust at features like the Mid-Atlantic Ridge?

Answer. Divergent boundary

At divergent boundaries, plates move apart and magma rises from the mantle to fill the gap, cooling into new oceanic crust. This process creates mid-ocean ridges and rift valleys.

Deep ocean trenches and chains of active volcanoes typically form at which type of plate boundary?

Answer. Convergent boundary (subduction zone)

When one plate is denser than the other, it subducts beneath it, creating a deep trench; the melting subducted material rises to form a volcanic arc, such as the Andes or the Cascades.

The San Andreas Fault produces frequent earthquakes but no volcanic activity. Explain why, based on the type of plate boundary it represents.

Answer. It is a transform boundary, where two plates slide horizontally past each other without one being subducted or crust being created, so the stress builds and releases as earthquakes rather than melting rock into magma.

Volcanism requires either magma generation from subduction (convergent) or from decompression melting as plates separate (divergent). Transform boundaries only involve lateral sliding friction, which produces seismic energy but not the melting needed for volcanism.

All 13 questions for Unit 4, with the working →

What people get wrong

  1. Assuming Earth's distance from the sun causes the seasons — instead, remember seasons come from the 23.5° axial tilt changing the sun's angle and day length; Earth is actually nearest the sun during Northern Hemisphere winter.
  2. Mixing up divergent and convergent boundaries when identifying landforms — instead, ask whether crust is being created (divergent, e.g., mid-ocean ridge) or destroyed (convergent, e.g., trench/subduction) before naming the landform.
  3. Applying the Coriolis deflection direction the same way in both hemispheres — instead, always check which hemisphere the question is set in: right-deflection in the Northern Hemisphere, left-deflection in the Southern Hemisphere.
  4. Reversing El Niño and La Niña conditions on multiple-choice questions — instead, anchor on trade wind strength first: weak trade winds and warm water in the east = El Niño; strong trade winds and cold upwelling in the east = La Niña.

Unit 5: Land and Water Use 10–15% of the exam

Tragedy of the commons, agriculture and irrigation, pest control, meat production, fishing, mining, urbanisation, ecological footprints, sustainability, aquaculture, forestry.

3 of 14 questions in this unit, with the worked answer

A mountain pasture is open for any local herder to graze livestock at no cost, with no limit on herd size. Over time the pasture becomes barren and can no longer support grazing. This scenario best illustrates which concept?

Answer. Tragedy of the commons

Because the pasture is an unregulated, shared (open-access) resource, each herder benefits fully from adding more animals while the cost of overgrazing is spread across everyone, so no individual has an incentive to limit their own use. This leads to collective overuse and degradation.

Which change to an irrigated field's water delivery system would most directly reduce the risk of salinization?

Answer. Switching from flood irrigation to drip irrigation

Flood irrigation applies large volumes of water that evaporate and leave salts behind in the topsoil. Drip irrigation delivers small, targeted amounts of water directly to plant roots, reducing standing water and evaporation, which slows salt accumulation.

Explain why heavy, repeated use of a single broad-spectrum pesticide often leads to a larger pest outbreak within a few growing seasons.

Answer. Natural selection favors resistant pests that survive and reproduce, while the pesticide also kills the natural predators/parasites that had been keeping the pest (and other secondary pests) in check.

Repeated exposure selects for resistant individuals in the pest population, so resistance spreads. At the same time, broad-spectrum pesticides are non-selective and kill beneficial predator and parasitoid species, removing natural biological control and allowing both the resistant target pest and previously minor secondary pests to increase.

All 14 questions for Unit 5, with the working →

What people get wrong

  1. Treating 'ecological footprint' as if it only measures carbon emissions. Instead, remember it also includes cropland, grazing land, forest land, fishing grounds, and built-up land — it is a total land-use measure, not just a carbon metric.
  2. Assuming tragedy of the commons requires greed or bad intent. Instead, recognize it arises from rational self-interest acting on an unregulated shared resource; the fix is regulation, quotas, or property rights, not appeals to individual morality.
  3. Assuming all aquaculture reduces pressure on wild fish stocks. Instead, check the trophic level of the farmed species — carnivorous fish like salmon require large amounts of wild-caught fishmeal (a fish-in:fish-out ratio greater than 1), which can worsen wild stock depletion, while herbivorous species like tilapia are far more efficient.
  4. Confusing salinization with eutrophication because both involve water and nutrients/chemicals. Instead, keep the mechanisms separate: salinization is salt buildup in soil from evaporating irrigation water, degrading soil fertility; eutrophication is nutrient (nitrogen/phosphorus) enrichment of water bodies causing algal blooms and oxygen depletion.

Unit 6: Energy Resources and Consumption 10–15% of the exam

Renewable and non-renewable resources, global energy use, fossil fuels, nuclear power, biomass, solar, hydroelectric, geothermal, wind, energy conservation.

3 of 14 questions in this unit, with the worked answer

A country's energy consumption is growing at 3.5% per year. Using the Rule of 70, approximately how many years will it take for consumption to double?

Answer. About 20 years

Doubling time = 70 divided by the annual growth rate percentage: 70 / 3.5 = 20 years. This estimate assumes the growth rate stays constant, which is the key assumption behind the Rule of 70.

A wind turbine rated at a maximum output of 2,000 kWh per day actually produces an average of 700 kWh per day over a year. What is its capacity factor?

Answer. 35%

Capacity factor = actual output / maximum possible output = 700/2000 = 0.35, or 35%. This reflects wind's intermittency; turbines rarely run at full rated capacity because wind speed varies.

Which best explains why an EROI of 2:1 for a resource is concerning for long-term energy strategy?

Answer. Nearly half the energy gained must be reinvested just to obtain more of the resource, leaving little net energy for other uses

EROI of 2:1 means for every 2 units of energy produced, 1 unit was spent extracting and processing it, so only half the gross energy is actually net available energy — a low margin that becomes uneconomical as it approaches 1:1.

All 14 questions for Unit 6, with the working →

What people get wrong

  1. Assuming 'renewable' automatically means 'environmentally harmless.' Biomass combustion releases CO₂ and particulates, and large hydroelectric dams flood habitats and block fish migration — always evaluate impact separately from renewability.
  2. Confusing capacity factor with efficiency. Efficiency compares energy output to energy input at the device level; capacity factor compares actual output over time to theoretical maximum output, which matters for intermittent sources like wind and solar.
  3. Treating nuclear power as a major direct greenhouse gas source. Reactor operation emits very little CO₂; the real environmental concerns are high-level radioactive waste storage, thermal pollution of water sources, and catastrophic accident risk, not routine air pollution.
  4. Forgetting that fossil fuels power more than electricity generation. Oil is used heavily for transportation and natural gas for heating and industrial processes, so 'switching the grid to renewables' does not eliminate fossil fuel demand by itself.

Unit 7: Atmospheric Pollution 7–10% of the exam

Air pollutants, photochemical smog, thermal inversion, indoor air pollution, pollution reduction, acid rain, noise pollution.

3 of 14 questions in this unit, with the worked answer

Which of the following is a secondary air pollutant formed through atmospheric chemical reactions rather than emitted directly from a source?

Answer. Tropospheric (ground-level) ozone

Ozone forms when NOx and VOCs react in sunlight; it is never emitted directly. CO, SO2, and diesel particulate matter are all primary pollutants released straight from combustion sources.

What are the two main classes of chemicals that react with sunlight to produce photochemical smog?

Answer. Nitrogen oxides (NOx) and volatile organic compounds (VOCs)

Sunlight drives reactions between NOx (from combustion) and VOCs (from fuel evaporation, solvents, vegetation) to generate ozone and other secondary pollutants that make up smog.

Explain how a thermal inversion forms and why it worsens urban air pollution.

Answer. A layer of warm air settles above a layer of cooler surface air, preventing the normal upward convection that disperses pollutants, so they accumulate near the ground.

Normally temperature falls with altitude, letting warm polluted surface air rise and mix away. In an inversion this profile flips, trapping pollutants like a lid, especially in valleys or basins.

All 14 questions for Unit 7, with the working →

What people get wrong

  1. Assuming ozone is emitted directly from tailpipes or smokestacks. Correct approach: ozone is always a secondary pollutant, formed when NOx and VOCs react in sunlight — never list it as a primary pollutant.
  2. Treating CO2 as one of the EPA's six criteria air pollutants. Correct approach: the criteria pollutants are CO, NO2, SO2, O3, particulate matter, and lead; CO2 is a greenhouse gas regulated separately, not under NAAQS.
  3. Describing a thermal inversion as 'cold air rising' or 'warm air rising through cold air.' Correct approach: an inversion is warm air sitting ABOVE cool surface air, which suppresses the normal upward mixing rather than promoting it.
  4. Calculating pH or decibel differences linearly (e.g., saying pH 4 is 'twice as acidic' as pH 6). Correct approach: treat each unit as a factor of 10, so a 2-unit pH difference is a 100-fold difference in acidity.

Unit 8: Aquatic and Terrestrial Pollution 7–10% of the exam

Sources of pollution, human impacts on ecosystems, endocrine disruptors, thermal pollution, solid waste, sewage treatment, LD50 and dose-response, pathogens.

3 of 14 questions in this unit, with the worked answer

Which of the following is the best example of nonpoint source water pollution?

Answer. Agricultural runoff carrying fertilizer from multiple fields into a stream

Nonpoint source pollution comes from diffuse, widespread inputs rather than a single identifiable outlet. A factory pipe or a single oil spill has one clear source, but fertilizer washing off many fields during a rainstorm has no single entry point, making it nonpoint and much harder to regulate.

Why is nonpoint source pollution generally harder to regulate than point source pollution?

Answer. Because it comes from many diffuse, widespread locations rather than a single identifiable outlet, making it difficult to monitor, trace to a responsible party, and control with a single permit or filter.

Regulations like discharge permits work well when pollution exits from one pipe or stack that can be measured and controlled. Nonpoint pollution enters through countless small paths (driveways, fields, lawns), so agencies must rely on broader land-use policies and voluntary best practices instead of a single point of enforcement.

A power plant discharges heated cooling water into a river. What is the primary ecological mechanism by which this thermal pollution harms aquatic organisms?

Answer. It lowers dissolved oxygen solubility while simultaneously raising organisms' metabolic rate and oxygen demand

Warm water holds less dissolved gas, so oxygen availability drops. At the same time, higher temperature speeds up the metabolism of ectothermic aquatic organisms, increasing their oxygen requirement. The combination of falling supply and rising demand causes stress or fish kills.

All 14 questions for Unit 8, with the working →

What people get wrong

  1. Assuming a lower LD50 means a substance is safer. It is the opposite — a lower LD50 means a smaller dose is lethal, so the substance is MORE toxic. Always state the direction of the LD50-toxicity relationship in your answer.
  2. Misclassifying diffuse pollution as point source because it originates within one city or region. Check whether there is a single identifiable outlet (point source) or many scattered inputs like runoff from streets and lawns (nonpoint source), regardless of how localized the overall area is.
  3. Treating a high BOD reading as a sign of clean water. High BOD means more organic matter is being decomposed, which consumes more dissolved oxygen — this signals pollution and risk of hypoxia, not water quality.
  4. Describing thermal pollution as only 'warmer water is bad for fish' without the mechanism. Explain that warmer water holds less dissolved oxygen AND raises organisms' metabolic rate, so oxygen demand rises just as oxygen supply falls — that combination causes fish kills.

Unit 9: Global Change 15–20% of the exam

Stratospheric ozone, the greenhouse effect, global climate change, ocean warming and acidification, invasive species, endangered species, human impacts on biodiversity.

3 of 13 questions in this unit, with the worked answer

Which chemical class is primarily responsible for catalytic destruction of stratospheric ozone?

Answer. Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs)

CFCs are broken down by UV radiation in the stratosphere, releasing chlorine atoms that catalytically destroy ozone molecules through a repeating reaction cycle. Because the cycle regenerates Cl, one atom can destroy thousands of O₃ molecules.

Explain why a single chlorine atom can destroy thousands of ozone molecules rather than just one.

Answer. Because the chlorine reaction with ozone is catalytic — chlorine is regenerated after the reaction, not consumed.

Cl reacts with O₃ to form ClO and O₂; ClO then reacts with a free O atom to reform Cl and O₂. Since Cl is regenerated at the end of the cycle, it can repeat the destructive reaction many times before being removed from the stratosphere.

Describe the basic mechanism by which greenhouse gases warm the troposphere.

Answer. They allow incoming shortwave solar radiation to pass through but absorb outgoing longwave infrared radiation and re-emit it, trapping heat near Earth's surface.

Solar energy reaches Earth mostly as visible light, which greenhouse gases don't absorb well. Earth re-radiates this energy as infrared, which greenhouse gases do absorb and re-emit in all directions, including back toward the surface, raising surface and lower-atmosphere temperatures.

All 13 questions for Unit 9, with the working →

What people get wrong

  1. Confusing stratospheric ozone depletion with the greenhouse effect/climate change — they are different problems (UV shielding vs. heat trapping) with different primary chemicals (CFCs vs. CO₂/CH₄); state which system a question is asking about before answering.
  2. Assuming the Montreal Protocol addressed climate change — it specifically phased out ozone-depleting substances (CFCs); the treaties addressing greenhouse gas emissions are the Kyoto Protocol and Paris Agreement.
  3. Thinking one chlorine atom destroys only one ozone molecule — the cycle is catalytic, so a single Cl atom is regenerated and can destroy many thousands of O₃ molecules before it leaves the stratosphere.
  4. Describing ocean acidification as 'CO₂ making water acidic' without the mechanism — always mention that CO₂ forms carbonic acid, which releases H⁺ and lowers carbonate ion availability, since that carbonate loss is what actually harms calcifying organisms.

How it works

Choosing this curriculum creates a course in Chalkset with one study set per unit and the exam date set to the start of the next testing window. Readiness is weighted the way the exam is, so a weak unit that carries 18% of the score pulls harder than one that carries 6%. Pre-written units come with worked explanations and an independently checked answer key; the rest are written by the agent when you open them.

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